»Æ¹ÏµÎµÎapp

Update your Knowledge with MKSAP 18 Q&A

MKSAP 18MKSAP has been trusted by internists since 1967 as the best resource for updating knowledge. MKSAP 18, available in Complete, Digital, and Print packages, consists of 11 comprehensive text chapters with related multiple-choice questions. You'll find 1,200 completely new questions to help you identify learning gaps, stay current, and gain the knowledge you need to provide the best possible patient care. MKSAP 18's original and high-quality questions evolve out of case studies and patient scenarios based on the latest evidence.

For more information on MKSAP 18, or to order your copy, visit

MKSAP 18 Q & A

A 26-year-old woman is evaluated for left lateral knee and distal thigh pain that began 6 weeks ago. She is a long-distance runner who trains 6 days per week. The pain began insidiously and has slowly worsened over time. The pain is worst when she is running downhill. She experiences no pain while resting. She has not had any knee trauma and reports no catching, grinding, or locking.

On physical examination, vital signs are normal. On palpation, tenderness is noted 2 cm proximal to the lateral femoral condyle. With the patient supine, pain is reproduced with repeated flexion and extension of the knee as thumb pressure is applied to the lateral femoral epicondyle. There is weakness with left hip abduction. There is no joint line tenderness, joint effusion, or ligament laxity with applied stress.

Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A: Iliotibial band syndrome
B: Lateral collateral ligament tear
C: Lateral meniscal tear
D: Meralgia paresthetica

Answer and Critique

Back to the March 2019 issue of ACP International